Innovative Usage Thread

[bradrn]

So it is possible you re-reanalyzed your childish regular verb "got" into a defective verb with no 3s (and maybe no past).

I don’t think this is specific to jcb: present-tense ‘got’ is pretty common in British English. (Maybe English English specifically, because I’m not sure whether I’ve heard it here in Scotland.)

How do you know it's present tense?

Er… because it’s used with reference to the present time period? I don’t really have a good answer to this beyond ‘it feels like it’s used as a present tense’. I’ll try paying more attention next time.

[Richard W]

I just came across and didn't blink at the following heading on Youtube "The Man Who Bankrupt Casinos Has Now Bankrupt the Navy". The creator used bankrupt rather than bankrupted as the past tense in his talk, so it's not just a typo.

[Travis B.]

I just came across and didn't blink at the following heading on Youtube "The Man Who Bankrupt Casinos Has Now Bankrupt the Navy". The creator used bankrupt rather than bankrupted as the past tense in his talk, so it's not just a typo.

Of course, there are a good few irregular weak verbs in Standard English where the root ends with /t/ or /d/ where the past tense and past participle simply replace the stop with /t/ (and thus, if the verb already ended in /t/, the only way of telling the present and past indicative apart are that the 3sg. singular indicative takes -/s/) ─ this is certainly just an example of analogy with this pattern.